I'm guessing Rushdie is the only specific case referred to in the article because they can assume that the vast majority of their audience will consider what ha

I'm guessing Rushdie is the only specific case referred to in the article because they can assume that the vast majority of their audience will consider what happened to him abhorrent. However, they then slip into much more general terms, as though by induction any writers facing any kind of social consequences for expressing their bigoted views is the same as the fatwa. That they neglect entirely to make any mention of Adichie's own case seems disingenuous.