> but that’s not the agreement. What's the agreement? 40 hours alone is not sufficient information. 40 hours of what? Having personally done this "overemploye

> but that’s not the agreement. What's the agreement? 40 hours alone is not sufficient information. 40 hours of what? Having personally done this "overemployed" thing in some form for 15 years now, I write it right into the contracts. I deliver 40 hours of availability, and bill as such, with recognition in the contract that I may choose to work elsewhere when I am not needed, including provisions to prioritize another engagement, even when my availability is needed, under certain circumstances. > Obviously he’s not working the full 40. If by work you mean fulfilling the obligations of the agreement, he might be, depending on the nature of the agreement. Per my contracts, I can theoretically, when my availability isn't called on, work 40 hours sitting on the couch watching TV. I sell hours of availability. If that availability is not used, that is not my concern and not my business. > It’s no different than if my mechanic, lawyer, etc does a project in 2 hrs, and bills me 4 hrs. If you hired a staff mechanic or lawyer then it is likely that you will pay for 4 hours (or, perhaps more commonly, 8 hours) of work even if they only have 2 hours worth of work to do. It turns out that not all agreements are equivalent. Which brings us back to the top. What's the agreement?