3 ms·
We don’t even know whether there are infinitely many decimal Repunit primes (https://primes.utm.edu/glossary/page.php?sort=Repunit https://primes.utm.edu/glossa
by Someone 4y ago
We don’t even know whether there are infinitely many decimal Repunit primes (https://primes.utm.edu/glossary/page.php?sort=Repunit https://primes.utm.edu/glossary/page.php?sort=Repunit)
Even if that were true, we know there always is a prime between n and 2n (https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bertrand%27s_postulate https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bertrand%27s_postulate). Since there’s a factor of about 10 between successive repunits, the repunits themselves are already spaced further apart, let alone those that are prime (for which the first filter is “for R(x) to be prime, x must be prime”)
So, no, they aren’t equal.
- quickthrower2 4y agoThanks for the answer. I meant with respect to x. So if R1 to R100 were all prime for example, for that range I consider it 100% dense by my definition. Instead if 0.0000000…00000009% dense by computing: 100/R100. Hope that makes sense. My definition of course may be at odds with mathematical conventions.