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Isn't this common to most Indo-European languages? I think it's valid for Germanic, Slavic and Greek.
by qsi 4y ago
Isn't this common to most Indo-European languages? I think it's valid for Germanic, Slavic and Greek.
- akolbe 4y agoDescendants of Latin like French have lost the neuter gender and the relevant inflectional endings. So now nominative and accusative for what we would translate as "it" differ. But it's true that Germanic pronouns still confirm to the system as well (he/him vs. it/it). (Actually, come to think of it, in German only the masculine differentiates between nominative and accusative.)