5 ms·
"That inverse doesn’t exist." That is my new math contribution apparently then. I am happy to explain my proof. I can inverse f(x)=f(x+1) easily as g(x)=f(x)-1
by sean_pedersen 4y ago
"That inverse doesn’t exist." That is my new math contribution apparently then. I am happy to explain my proof.
I can inverse f(x)=f(x+1) easily as g(x)=f(x)-1 since g(f(x)) = x do you understand my functional inversion approach now better?
- Khelavaster 4y agoWhat's the reverse of '4', since '1' and '8' both link to it?
- sean_pedersen 4y agoThe reverse is a "Quantum" tree (DAG): 4->1,4->8