4 ms·
"Such a difference cannot be explained by PPP" ? It's definitely explained in terms of PPP. If you could only have one single measure to use in terms of price
by jasmer 4y ago
"Such a difference cannot be explained by PPP"
? It's definitely explained in terms of PPP.
If you could only have one single measure to use in terms of price discrimination, it would be that.
Europeans have less purchasing power than Australians.
Ergo, price difference.
I'll bet Philippine visitors get an even bigger discount.