4 ms·
> That was the value at the time of seizure, which is most-likely the correct time at which to value it. It should be marked to value at time of the crime. Val
by conductr 4y ago
> That was the value at the time of seizure, which is most-likely the correct time at which to value it.
It should be marked to value at time of the crime. Value of the property is often a metric used for setting the charges/punishment and he had no idea it would appreciate the way it did. He shouldn't get penalized for it appreciating.
May differ internationally but to my knowledge it works that way over most of the US.
- dragonwriter 4y ago> It should be marked to value at time of the crime. Value of the property is often a metric used for setting the charges/punishment In the context of charges/punishment, when thr charges apply to specific direct proceeds, that would seem correct. In the context of reporting a seizure, the value at the time of the seizure is relevant. Those are two different things, even though they might relate to the same property at different points in time.
- conductr 4y agoGood point. I suppose it’s a measure of disruption.