I'm not trying to present any case, I'm just asking a question. I'm genuinely curious. As an employer, I am legally in hot water if my employee works for a maj

I'm not trying to present any case, I'm just asking a question. I'm genuinely curious. As an employer, I am legally in hot water if my employee works for a majority of their employment outside of the legal jurisdiction in which I'm employing them. I'm not an expert on US tax law (nor am I American) but I would imagine that I'm remitting employment income tax on behalf of an employee in a given state and they are claiming spending 330/365 days out of the country that an auditor would be very interested in speaking with both of us. I'm not aware of any scenario where you can simultaneously be employed in a given county and also never present in it. Maybe this is an American thing?