3 ms·
> My guess is because 'not having a college degree' is not any kind of protected class. Not an immutable characteristic. It is a behavior choice. Do we really w
by nordsieck 4y ago
> My guess is because 'not having a college degree' is not any kind of protected class. Not an immutable characteristic. It is a behavior choice. Do we really want to get the gov't involved in telling private companies what qualifications they can require for a particular job?
That is true.
But race and sex are protected classes. And the 4/5ths rule says that if a particular requirement generates a resulting distribution that is more than 4/5ths different from the general population, then it is presumed to be a form of structural discrimination[1].
From what I understand, a requirement that is necessary for the job - for example, a particular degree like Chemical Engineering - would be exempt. But I doubt that the requirement for a college degree without regard to the subject would be similarly protected.
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1. This is not idle conjecture on my part. There were a number of pretty high profile firefighting tests that were the subject of lawsuits for this very reason. And the cities lost. Sadly, I didn't save the test at the time and I suspect that they've been lost of the mists of time, but I did read at least one of the tests in question, and it was a bunch of firefighting related questions.
- sjy 4y agoInteresting question. https://old.reddit.com/r/AskHR/comments/h9vavc/doesnt_griggs_v_duke_power_make_requiring_a/ https://old.reddit.com/r/AskHR/comments/h9vavc/doesnt_griggs...