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Unless it's in a text of law, it's not legitimate. This is not correct. There's always some degree of ambiguity, and as the Courts hear cases that test those a
by CWuestefeld 15y ago
Unless it's in a text of law, it's not legitimate.
This is not correct. There's always some degree of ambiguity, and as the Courts hear cases that test those ambiguities, those precedents -- known as "case law" -- effectively become part of the law, even though they're not in the text.