3 ms·
I think he was simply implying that Germany doesn't control the rest of the countries in Europe like the US government controls its states.
by zachgreen 15y ago
I think he was simply implying that Germany doesn't control the rest of the countries in Europe like the US government controls its states.
- sipefree 15y agoThey don't control the rest of Europe (though right now with the Euro situation they probably just about do), however there are provisions for legal precedent in one Member State to apply in every. I have no idea how it works and when it applies, though. It's definitely not so direct as in the U.S.
- krzyk 15y agoCourts in Europe are not precedence-based. At least not in all countries. Here (Poland) there is no such thing as precedence in courts, not to mention basing a verdict on precedence in foreign court.