3 ms·
How do share buybacks equal profit sharing with employees? The employees are the ones doing the work, pay them before lecherous shareholders.
by Red_Leaves_Flyy 4y ago
How do share buybacks equal profit sharing with employees? The employees are the ones doing the work, pay them before lecherous shareholders.
- BobbyJo 4y agoThey don't, I'm trying to get a comparable number. "profit sharing" is too vague a term to compare two groups (across time or geography) with any credibility. If we are going to compare on an axis, we need to first have a defined axis, otherwise it's just an opinion. For instance, GGP and you both clarified things with two different definitions for "shared prosperity".
- Red_Leaves_Flyy 4y agoYou’re splitting hairs here under the guise of data centrism. By virtually every metric shareholders are continuously improving their lives while workers have not. Obviously the 0.01-10% of the population that comprises shareholders with voting rights or majority holdings is a smaller cohort but when they improve their lot at the expense of everyone else we’re in a tyranny of the minority and doing nothing but argue is a wholly unacceptable state of affairs.
- BobbyJo 4y agoThe premise of this thread is: > Something is wrong with the economy, not just in the UK, but in America and probably a bunch of other countries. Where is the prosperity, if its there, why is it not more widely shared? is it a single cause, or is the cause manifold? I'm trying to find basis for the part that references America, other than a gut feeling. If not transfer payments, GDP growth, real wage growth, then what? If everything we can measure says things are generally improving, then why the feeling that prosperity isn't happening? Your response here tells me prosperity is pretty widespread as there are lot f shareholders in the US.