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I assume because it allows for what amounts to price fixing.
by insanitybit 4y ago
I assume because it allows for what amounts to price fixing.
- epistasis 4y agoThey would have to consist of a huge fraction of the market in order to do price fixing, but the highest percentage of purchases I have ever seen referenced is about 10% of purchases in a time period, which doesn't get anywhere close to having a significant number of the housing stock.
- insanitybit 4y agoHow huge, do you think? I imagine that in actuality 10% would be enough to move the market, especially if other players do the same.
- epistasis 4y ago10% of a few quarters of purchases is still a tiny tiny tiny fraction of the market, and not enough to coordinate pricing. I think a far bigger concern is shortages of housing as individual homeowners and landlords act as a group to suppress local supply of housing. Local city councils tend to be controlled by such real estate interests. Corporate purchasers can piggy-back on that sort of regulatory capture without expending a single dime.