> "the unnamed developers ... were caught after management flagged problems with their performance" I feel like this is the wrong case to discuss specifically

> "the unnamed developers ... were caught after management flagged problems with their performance" I feel like this is the wrong case to discuss specifically because they had not been doing a satisfactory job. The interesting question is, if they were able to do an adequate job (i.e. not distinguishable from their peers with one job), would they still have been fired? Should they still have been fired? By contrast, consider two couples, each with the same number of kids, where in each couple, one parent works full time from home and the other works full time from an office. The parent at home has shifted work hours earlier in the day, and cares for their kids beginning from the mid afternoon after school. The only difference is in couple A, this is not regarded as an economic transaction, and couple B decides that one parent will pay the other for this ongoing, unequal childcare obligation. The care-giving parent in each case dedicates the same time to care-giving. In couple B's case, should they be fired for having "another job"? I think most people would give a firm "no." If a childless full time employee dedicates the same uninterrupted time to working another job as the care-giving parents from couples A and B give to child-care, should they be fired? If so, is it merely because of "dishonesty"? Or is this a value judgement, that employers of full-time, salaried employees should be able to decide that some activities away from your job are legitimate and others are lesser?