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Such a drastic change in effect—a drug inducing powerful stimulant effects in one group, and sedating effects in another—should be easily measurable by study, n
by ryeights 4y ago
Such a drastic change in effect—a drug inducing powerful stimulant effects in one group, and sedating effects in another—should be easily measurable by study, no? Is there any scientific literature documenting this?
- llamaLord 4y agoSo I’m not saying that I agree that it’s AS difinitive as this guy makes it out to be; but as someone with diagnosed ADHD, I can 100% validate the experience of stimulants having the opposite effect on me vs my neurotypical close-contacts. I can comfortably take a nap after popping 10mg of dexamphetamine, whereas most people would be atleast moderately buzzed. And this has been the case since day 1 (I was diagnosed at 26), so it’s not just a factor of tolerance. Another great example is the fact that the single biggest benefit to ADHD meds for me has been a complete reversal of my life-long anxiety. I’m now zen as f..k, whereas before being proscribed meds I was a very anxious, hyper-self critical person.
- hirvi74 4y ago> a drug inducing powerful stimulant effects in one group, and sedating effects in another I firmly believe this has more to do with dosages than anything else. Sure, give a random person a 10mg Adderall and one might be more sedated or hyperactive. Give them 100mg (almost double therapeutic max), and I guarantee they won't be calm sedated. Sure, everyone has a different threshold that needs to be hit for whatever underlying reasons just like alcohol. One beer might make some feel buzzed, one beer might not do anything. But for an average person (not a chronic alcoholic), I guarantee they'll be fucked-up after 6+ beers.