4 ms·
There is no such thing as "men" or "women". There are only individuals. Once you attribute anything to "men" or to "women", you are creating a pathological fa
by cc101 4y ago
There is no such thing as "men" or "women". There are only individuals. Once you attribute anything to "men" or to "women", you are creating a pathological fallacy which smears all members of the group with the attribute. Even when the attribute is conditioned with "some", "most" or whatever all members of the group are smeared in spite of the best of intentions. It's human nature. What possible utility would this information provide except to deliberately smear a group?
I am not x% more or less likely to cheat. I either cheat or I don't. I should not carry the burden of x% on account of my gender.
- proc0 4y agoThe statistics exist though, and they point to real differences on a bell curve. Would you deny that men are more likely to commit physical violent crimes, or is that evenly spread?
- robocat 4y agoStatistics are great for predicting group results. Statistics are often misleading for an individual, or are overwhelmingly dominated by other information. For example, if you know your friend has cheated (100%), then the statistic is not helpful (22%)! There are plenty of signals that have much higher predictive power than sex/gender. Another problem with statistics versus individuals, is moral hazard.
- proc0 4y agoI agree statistics doesn't say much for individuals because anyone could be an outlier, but as the numbers approach 70-80 percent, it's hard to deny the difference is real. i also agree the cheating statistics might not reflect real underlying differences but that does not extrapolate to all difference between males and females. We can do something similar with age. Older people are more likely to have some health issue i.e. high blood pressure, but it doesn't mean that much for individuals, since there are plenty of very healthy elderly people yet the statistic is definitely reflecting a real difference between young and old. In other words, generalization may never be absolute but it doesn't mean the groups being surveyd/tested are the same. When it comes to males and females, the definition of each phenotype is in the genes/DNA. These instructions produce everything that produces a man or a woman. These blueprints are distinct from each other even though there is certainly overlap, and they can be categorized by the features they produce. It's certainly not a sharp dividing line, but the categories are distinct despite overlapping and having fuzzy borders.
- cc101 4y agoThe only use for such statistics is to vilify all men.