3 ms·
> I am talking about an effect. The effect is not present in countries that did not close schools. The effect strongly correlates with the level of disruption
by henrikschroder 4y ago
> I am talking about an effect.
The effect is not present in countries that did not close schools. The effect strongly correlates with the level of disruption to schools and schooling caused by policy choices. The effect does not correlate with infection levels among that cohort of the population.
There is a strong political desire for politicians who enacted these disastrous policies to avoid blame for them, one strategy is to frame all the policy choices as unavoidable, i.e. claiming that you "had to close schools". Another political strategy is to blameshift all the bad effects onto the virus itself, which is exactly what you're doing.
Your post is a prime example of "JAQing off"; you are "just asking questions", saying things like "shouldn't we study this?", or "there are no studies showing it's because of <insert obvious explanation here>".
- AnthonBerg 4y ago> Another political strategy is to blameshift all the bad effects onto the virus itself, which is exactly what you're doing. What’s up with this “you are like this and that”? What’s with the accusations and insults? What’s your problem? Take it elsewhere! — On topic, we’re diverging on the word effect. I am using the word effect to mean “something that the illness is known to do in certain measure” – an effect of the disease on the population. You’re using the word effect to mean effect size in a particular study. It’s an understandable divergence. Just to make sure: I am not saying. That the grades dropping. Is caused by post COVID cognitive impairment. I said that it was interesting to think about how you’d design a study so it would control for such an effect. I see studies about cognitive impairment on the individual level. I see studies about this and that on a population level. I see lots of people saying there’s no connection. I don’t see how they know that.