>1. In the top band there are many more males than females. Is 5% of boys scoring in the top band, compared to 3% of girls, really "many more males"? (Yes, I k

>1. In the top band there are many more males than females. Is 5% of boys scoring in the top band, compared to 3% of girls, really "many more males"? (Yes, I know that means that 60% more boys than girls scored in the top band. But the percentages are what matter here.) EDIT: From a comment: >Also, in the bottom band, there are many more males than females. >It seems to be yet another confirmation of the greater male variability hypothesis I feel foolish for not mentioning this. I think 18% of boys in the bottom band versus 14% of girls is "many more males" only in the sense that the 5% versus 3% figure above is, but taken together, yes, this is more evidence of male scores being the same on average but having a wider distribution. >or is it considered a fact by now? It sure wasn't in 2005! (For others' benefit, the commenter is alluding to what happened to Larry Summers as Harvard president. <https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lawrence_Summers#Differences_between_the_sexes https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lawrence_Summers#Differences_b...>) EDIT 2: The blogger himself addressed it back in 2005! <https://infoproc.blogspot.com/2005/02/summers-lynching.html https://infoproc.blogspot.com/2005/02/summers-lynching.html>