4 ms·
See here: https://www.pnas.org/doi/10.1073/pnas.1002780107 https://www.pnas.org/doi/10.1073/pnas.1002780107 It has to do with true randomness in the measuremen
by mdorazio 4y ago
See here: https://www.pnas.org/doi/10.1073/pnas.1002780107 https://www.pnas.org/doi/10.1073/pnas.1002780107
It has to do with true randomness in the measurement aspect, not with human free will.
- kgwgk 4y agoHow is “free will” different from the “freedom of choice” extensively discussed in that link - “as crucial as realism and locality in the derivation of Bell’s theorem”?