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That's true but I don't see how the earlier claim necessarily follows. It seems to be making assumptions around the amount of gene flow between Europe and Asia
by hackerlight 4y ago
That's true but I don't see how the earlier claim necessarily follows. It seems to be making assumptions around the amount of gene flow between Europe and Asia in the last 30k years, as well as that it was distinct migratory groups that seeded Europe versus seeded Asia.
It could well be true, it's plausible, I tried to google it without much luck, though.
- crazygringo 4y agoFrom what I know it based purely on current measurable genetics, it's not making any assumptions at all. It's the genetic evidence that comes first that supports the hypothesis of distinct migratory groups, not the other way around.