"Even if we grant that there is a non-zero value in the timing flexibility provided by use of capital, how does this argument answer the claim that the profits

"Even if we grant that there is a non-zero value in the timing flexibility provided by use of capital, how does this argument answer the claim that the profits flowing to investors are outsized, distorting the housing market?" Does it have to? Couldn't we find another answer? (Like maybe: we humans are driven by our desires and its society's obligation to prevent/reduce/limit the damage we do to others as a result)