The original comment was entirely arbitrarily limited to the 1900s, and as it brought "the left" into the discussion unprompted, I can only assume this was done

The original comment was entirely arbitrarily limited to the 1900s, and as it brought "the left" into the discussion unprompted, I can only assume this was done intentionally to justify specifically going after left regimes. So firstly, I don't see why a counter-argument should stick to this arbitrary time frame, and secondly, some of my examples do in fact apply to this time frame too.