Might be true in some zero-sum sense if the highest salaries are already subsidized by the lowest ones, but let's say some company is already turning a profit o

Might be true in some zero-sum sense if the highest salaries are already subsidized by the lowest ones, but let's say some company is already turning a profit on their highest paid employees, it should be theoretically possible to match those wages. Assuming the value of a unit of work is the same no matter where it is produced.