3 ms·
But if there is no obviously desirable move, and instead a wide array of potential equally good moves, then picking the same as the computer picked gives a high
by mach1ne 4y ago
But if there is no obviously desirable move, and instead a wide array of potential equally good moves, then picking the same as the computer picked gives a high probability of cheating. That being said, I find it unlikely that that's the case here.
- tiagod 4y agoI believe you're starting from a false premise. In case of the first moves, there's definitely not a wide array of potentially equally good moves. There's a very well known set which is studied by every serious chess player.
- deleted 4y ago[deleted]