> If you want to argue that it's fair that some people are rich while some people are poor, there has to be some natural inherent difference between the rich an

> If you want to argue that it's fair that some people are rich while some people are poor, there has to be some natural inherent difference between the rich and the poor. Would you consider it immoral if a thousand people of equal economic status chose to participate in a lottery where they each paid in 1% of their money, and then one person, selected at random, won all of it? Does your answer change if it's a chess tournament instead of a lottery?