3 ms·
I'm curious about the example in the article. If the effects were measured at 30% and 15%, which are the change in some measured norm, then isn't the differenc
by lucisferre 15y ago
I'm curious about the example in the article. If the effects were measured at 30% and 15%, which are the change in some measured norm, then isn't the difference in differences actually 100% not 15%?
- _delirium 15y agoOften you still use units of % change relative to the initial quantity, though I suppose you could define it either way. For example, if we're comparing a country with an inflation rate of 4% and one with an inflation of 8%, we might say that the difference between the rates is 4%, in that |rate1-rate2| = 0.04, as opposed to measuring one in terms of percent of the other.
- lucisferre 15y agoI'm asking because the author talks about the "difference in differences" and as early as highschool physics they drill into your head that the difference between two things is represented by the percentage difference not it's absolute difference. Saying 15% is negligible when it is actually a 100% change in the effect seems incorrect somehow.