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There are so many folks from countries which did not have any colonialism which were not implicated in any sort of way in the oppression of folks of non-white s
by bsperspectnoon 4y ago
There are so many folks from countries which did not have any colonialism which were not implicated in any sort of way in the oppression of folks of non-white skin color which are definitely affected by reverse-racism. Think all of Eastern-Europe for example. In essence this method of dealing with racism is actually antagonizing folks which did not have anything to do with the issue to begin with. It is kind of ridiculous. Why are they affected just because they have white skin? I am sure some non-whites are saying: "It's your turn to see how it is". Actually, it is not. The people implementing these sort of policies are even more ignorant than the original oppressors. They think their actions are just. Which is completely false. Who are they to pass judgement on who is responsible for past oppression.
- dc-programmer 4y agoMore of a nitpick but was the USSR not considered a imperialist polity? The ubiquity of the Russian language in Central Asia seems like a strong artifact of colonialism. Even today, Russia is throwing people and resources largely from the (non-slavic) provinces and satellite states at Ukraine. Even in the United States, Eastern Europeans immigrants were quick to assert themselves in the racial hierarchy in places like Chicago. I’m not saying this to implicate or unimplicate anyone really. It’s more to point out morally elevating one group of people over others (western vs Eastern Europeans) to make a rhetorical argument doesn’t really hold up to scrutiny because of the contradictions inherit in all people and countries.
- TheBigSalad 4y agoYou see racial equality as a punishment on white people for the colonialism of prior generations?