4 ms·
According to wikipedia: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Roman_numerals https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Roman_numerals there doesn't seem to have been a great deal o
by tgflynn 4y ago
According to wikipedia: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Roman_numerals https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Roman_numerals
there doesn't seem to have been a great deal of consistency about this (ie. IIII vs IV) in ancient times. I suspect that the notion that there is a single correct form is the (relatively) recent invention.