>If, even some of the time, obesity is not due to a person overeating or under-exercising, should discrimination against the obese carry the same legal conseque

>If, even some of the time, obesity is not due to a person overeating or under-exercising, should discrimination against the obese carry the same legal consequences as discrimination based on age, race, or gender? And by the same measure, should purveyors of fattening foods be made unaccountable for the perceived consequences of their products? Both questions are strange, for different reasons. The first, because it doesn't follow from the above. They later clarify "Only when they were fed 10 to 15 percent less did they slim down to the size of their unaltered siblings." So its not that such a specimen can't lower thir obesity by eating less, but simply that they have a lower threshold for becoming obese. As for the second question, if some portion of people would be obese regardless of the era, "purveyors of fattening foods" can still be accountable for all the other obese people. Though we don't especially have a tradition of holding such companies accountable in any meaningful sense.