> It seems they prefer the colonizer? Sure, because the foreign company exercises their access to capital to compete at a wage level that local companies can't

> It seems they prefer the colonizer? Sure, because the foreign company exercises their access to capital to compete at a wage level that local companies can't compete with, but is still as low as possible to extract maximum value from the investment made by purchasing the worker's labor. Why do you think there's such inequality in economic opportunity, such that exploiting labor in this fashion is possible, in the first place? > Is that exploitation any more than the US employee not getting paid 2x or 5 or 100 their current rate? I'm not making any comparative assertions here. You seem to be making the case (by implication of your question) that in your opinion it's good for OP he's getting the opportunity to be exploited. And I'm just saying, it's exploitation. It is what it is.