26 ms·

So for instance, in a base pi, pi =1 or pi=10? Does 1 always equal 1? That can’t be right… (Aside, Leibniz invented binary based on inspiration from I Ching. C

• dhosek 4y ago
  Yes because the 1s place will be base⁰ which is 1.
• GoldenRacer 4y ago
  1 and 0 are still 1 and 0 regardless of the base. Pi=10_pi since it's the base. 2 and 3 are still 2_pi and 3_pi since they are less than pi. Things get weird when you start going above pi. For example, the number 4 would be written 10.220122021..._pi because 1*pi^1 + 0*pi^0 + 2*pi^-1 + 2*pi^-2 + 0*pi^-3 + 1*pi^-4 + 2*pi^-5 + 2*pi^-6 + 0*pi^-7 + 2*pi^-8 + 1*pi^-9 + ... = 4 Kind of weird having integers that have to be written as infinite series.