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Actually most of the time if you're playing in a different tuning (eg quarter-comma meantone or pythagorean or whatever) where they would be different, you're p
by seanhunter 4y ago
Actually most of the time if you're playing in a different tuning (eg quarter-comma meantone or pythagorean or whatever) where they would be different, you're playing a type of music where you exclusively would play one note or the other, so the fact that they are theoretically different doesn't arise.
- iainmerrick 4y agoBut then wouldn’t the fact that they’re theoretically the same also not arise?