5 ms·
No it's where the second derivative changes sign. You can think of the first derivative as the motion, and the second derivative as the "force" that's driving
by sixbrx 15y ago
No it's where the second derivative changes sign. You can think of the first derivative as the motion, and the second derivative as the "force" that's driving the motion - the force is changing direction.
- starwed 15y agoEquivalently it is where the second derivative is equal to zero -- which implies the first derivative is at a local extrema. In the context here, it's clear that the inflection point would be the point of greatest change.
- sixbrx 15y agoWell not quite equivalent exactly - the second derivative could just touch zero and then go back whence it came :) That wouldn't be an inflection point I think, I'm not sure what you'd call that...