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How come? It gives modern context to the amount lost, in the currency that country now uses. Surely as long as you follow the conversion rates between currencie

by altacc 4y ago

How come? It gives modern context to the amount lost, in the currency that country now uses. Surely as long as you follow the conversion rates between currencies when they changed, then it's possible to provide an approximate current value in a relatable currency. The confusing bit for me is "equivalent to £5.45 million in 2019" as it is not clear why it would be a value in £, being in Euro using Ireland (and pedantically if it means Irish or British pounds).

messe 4y ago
I would lean toward the £ means sterling, as Ireland used that from 1868 - 1928, the period in question (and the punt was de-facto pegged to it until the 70s).
- wirrbel 4y ago
  That would also have to be inflation adjusted and would be pretty meaningless to as a value to people in Dublin. And then it would more or less only be understood without further calculation by UK inhabitants. The Pound of today is pretty much a different currency to the 19th century
  - messe 4y ago
    > would be pretty meaningless to as a value to people in Dublin Utter horseshite, that's like saying a Canadian along the border would be clueless as to CAD-USD conversion rates. The UK is our next door neighbour. It's common enough to buy goods up north, online from the UK, and to travel there. We can generally do a rough conversion in our heads; the same goes for USD nowadays due to the prevalence of online shopping (and the fact that its now at near parity with EUR helps). > The Pound of today is pretty much a different currency to the 19th century True of any currency. You may as well argue that any measurement in an inflation adjusted currency is nonsense if you're going to go down that route. Given that the Sterling was in use then and now, I'd argue that the most meaningful way to calculate value would be to adjust the value for the inflation of Pounds Sterling. That can then be converted as appropriate to euros for convenience (as it seems to have been in the first paragraph of this article).

by altacc 4y ago

messe 4y ago

I would lean toward the £ means sterling, as Ireland used that from 1868 - 1928, the period in question (and the punt was de-facto pegged to it until the 70s).

wirrbel 4y ago
That would also have to be inflation adjusted and would be pretty meaningless to as a value to people in Dublin. And then it would more or less only be understood without further calculation by UK inhabitants. The Pound of today is pretty much a different currency to the 19th century
- messe 4y ago
  > would be pretty meaningless to as a value to people in Dublin Utter horseshite, that's like saying a Canadian along the border would be clueless as to CAD-USD conversion rates. The UK is our next door neighbour. It's common enough to buy goods up north, online from the UK, and to travel there. We can generally do a rough conversion in our heads; the same goes for USD nowadays due to the prevalence of online shopping (and the fact that its now at near parity with EUR helps). > The Pound of today is pretty much a different currency to the 19th century True of any currency. You may as well argue that any measurement in an inflation adjusted currency is nonsense if you're going to go down that route. Given that the Sterling was in use then and now, I'd argue that the most meaningful way to calculate value would be to adjust the value for the inflation of Pounds Sterling. That can then be converted as appropriate to euros for convenience (as it seems to have been in the first paragraph of this article).