4 ms·
Because no penalty is functionally the same as a $0 fine, which is well under $100. (if there are nth-time offender bumps to the fine price, then they become di
by sophacles 15y ago
Because no penalty is functionally the same as a $0 fine, which is well under $100. (if there are nth-time offender bumps to the fine price, then they become different, but that is not studied here).
- div 15y agoNo penalty implies a moral / ethical stance that is different from even a $1 penalty. The underlying argument being that the majority of the population finds the current laws to be unjust not in measure, but on principle.