3 ms·
For better or worse we used to have 4x less people
by dzhiurgis 4y ago
For better or worse we used to have 4x less people
- stephen_g 4y agoThe solution to that, in hindsight, was probably not building the majority of new housing in sprawling, low-density suburbs that require a car to get most places people want to go though…
- rahen 4y agoWhich is why industrialized countries with higher population density move back even faster to pre-WWII urban planning (EU), or sometimes never left it (Japan).
- bawolff 4y agoI dont see how it matters. Its not like we have run out of room. Just have 4x the number of small neighbourhood grocery stores
- arise 4y agoWe're running out of something though, or some combination of things. Otherwise you wouldn't have such accelerating inequality and popular unrest.
- wyre 4y agoYa, we’re running out of wealth mobility. No one can afford houses because corporations vacuum up all the money.
- bawolff 4y agoVs pre-ww2 where all the peasents could easily afford real estate?
- wyre 4y agoThe population of the US has nearly tripled since then and the GDP has grown almost 2000%; more than 1500% if looking at real GDP [1]. There should be far more wealth equality now but there isn’t. [1]https://www.statista.com/statistics/1031678/gdp-and-real-gdp-united-states-1930-2019/ https://www.statista.com/statistics/1031678/gdp-and-real-gdp...
- bawolff 4y agoThe 1920s was very famous for wealth inequality, so im not sure that's true. With a quick google i found this graph https://www.cbpp.org/wealth-concentration-has-been-rising-toward-early-20th-century-levels-2 https://www.cbpp.org/wealth-concentration-has-been-rising-to... which suggests that the present is much more unequal than the 1970s, but still hasn't risen to the level of inequality from the pre WW2 era.