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Did the police catch him in the commission of a crime? If not then, yes, they would need a judge to sign a warrant. Seeing as he was released without charges

Did the police catch him in the commission of a crime? If not then, yes, they would need a judge to sign a warrant. Seeing as he was released without charges it seems the police grossly overstepped their authority. Edit: Let me caveat because I fired fast and loose with this reply. This is from an American perspective. I am not a UK lawyer so this could very well be perfectly legal. Though I do view it as "bad" and would oppose the introduction of these norms in America.

daveoc64 4y ago
The Police and Criminal Evidence Act is the relevant legislation. This section covers it: https://www.legislation.gov.uk/ukpga/1984/60/section/24 https://www.legislation.gov.uk/ukpga/1984/60/section/24
- stickyricky 4y ago
  > A constable may arrest without a warrant to prevent the person in question [from] committing an offence against public decency (subject to subsection (6)) I'm not sure of the specifics as to what "public decency" means in the UK but I believe your implication. I think subsection 6 supports my 'theory' (read: wild accusation)? Seeing as it was posted on the internet and could reasonably be avoided. Even if that's not so, this seems like a tort and should not be handled by the police. Just my opinion.