> If my movement and activities will be restricted then it is full employment/utilization, not some quasi-employment or utilization. I feel like this is a very

> If my movement and activities will be restricted then it is full employment/utilization, not some quasi-employment or utilization. I feel like this is a very absolutist statement that does not look at the actual nuance of the situation. I could maybe agree that a 5min response time (like Google Search or Google Ads SREs go through) could be argued to be "work" (although I honestly don't think so), but I don't quite agree with the definition you are using to define "full employment/utilization". Assuming I have to show up at the office every morning at 8am, this is basically saying that my employee is restricting my "movement and activities" outside work hours because if I can't get to the office in time by 8am then it means I am not free to do whatever I want off work. If I wanted to go to Hawaii the same morning as I'm expected to show up at work, and have no ability to get back to the office in time for my shift, does that mean that my employer is restricting my freedom of movement hence I should be compensated for it? No, obviously not, that would be ridiculous.