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Not sure how it is globally but in the US the logic here is that if the owner is paying a mortgage on the house, then the renter should cover that mortgage and
by xt00 4y ago
Not sure how it is globally but in the US the logic here is that if the owner is paying a mortgage on the house, then the renter should cover that mortgage and then some for a profit. So that would imply the renter can afford the mortgage but potentially not the down payment -- of course there are many exceptions like people who want to rent for a short time to be in a particular neighborhood for their kids school or whatever. But I do wonder if there was some way to decouple this connection between mortgage payment per month vs. rent price. No idea on a solution. I wonder if somebody has built up a map that shows how many houses are rentals in a particular area vs. owner occupied -- might be interesting to understand that ratio vs. how housing prices trend.
- kingnothing 4y agoExpanding on that logic a bit, you may be able to cover the mortgage from 5 or 10 years ago when the landlord bought the house, but not today. Or you may not want to lock yourself to one area for 5+ years, so you choose to rent instead of buy. Or you may not want the hassles of homeownership.