4 ms·
it's actually a common misunderstanding (even amongst french) : the "impure" blood the french anthem is talking about is their own blood, not the one from their
by bsaul 4y ago
it's actually a common misunderstanding (even amongst french) : the "impure" blood the french anthem is talking about is their own blood, not the one from their ennemies.
Nobility was calling them impure (since not from noble blood), and they reversed it to something to be proud of (kind of).
- deleted 4y ago[deleted]
- lou1306 4y agoAre there any reputable sources for that interpretation? At face value, it seems like a flimsy attempt at sweeping the unfortunate implications of the words "impure blood" under the rug. But since nationalism was widespread and encouraged in that zeitgeist, and considering the context of a foreign invasion in which the lyrics were written, I am way more inclined to assume that the "impure blood" is that of the "ferocious soldiers" coming for the French.
- rawgabbit 4y agoWell, as the song warns that foreign soldiers will come slit the throats of our women and children... I agree with your interpretation.
- btat1-2 4y agoFirst, Remember it was written in 1792 for the army of the French revolution. I'm French, I've heard a lot of of explanations about these words since I'm a child. Here's one of them: https://fr.quora.com/La-Marseillaise-contient-Quun-sang-impur-abreuve-nos-sillons-que-veut-dire-ici-un-sang-impur?share=1 https://fr.quora.com/La-Marseillaise-contient-Quun-sang-impu.... Sorry for the French text. This is a question that is sometimes very much discussed in France. Always in French : https://www.uneautremarseillaisepourlafrance.fr/blog/2015/12/le-sang-impur-de-la-marseillaise-na-jamais-ete-celui-des-francais/ https://www.uneautremarseillaisepourlafrance.fr/blog/2015/12...
- bsaul 4y agoIt looks like i got fooled by that alternate theory which gained a lot of popularity in the last 10 years, but is apparently fake.. Sorry about that.
- coolsunglasses 4y agoLa Marseillaise was written in 1792 by Claude Joseph Rouget de Lisle and the "impure blood" clearly refers to the enemies of France. Take a look at the lyrics immediately following the controversial section. Here's a translation from Wikipedia: "Let an impure blood Water our furrows! What does this horde of slaves Of traitors and conspiring kings want? For whom have these vile chains These irons, been long prepared? (repeated) Frenchmen, for us, ah! What outrage What furious action it must arouse! It is for us they dare plan A return to the old slavery! What! Foreign cohorts! Would make the law in our homes! What! These mercenary phalanxes …(later) Frenchmen, as magnanimous warriors, Bear or hold back your blows! Spare those sorry victims, For regretfully arming against us (repeated)" Okay so Frenchmen are magnaminous, valorous warriors. The enemy are the slaves of tyrants. And we're meant to believe the impure blood in a song written by a French revolutionary era freemason refers to the third estate? Seems unlikely to me.
- forty 4y agoI'm not sure what's the original interpretation was supposed to be, but as a French, bsaul interpretation is the one I choose to believe, and I think that matters more :)
- coolsunglasses 4y agobsaul agrees with me so you agree with me
- bsaul 4y agohttps://blogs.mediapart.fr/jean-clement-martin/blog/100116/quun-sang-impur-abreuve-nos-sillons-propos-dune-mauvaise-querelle https://blogs.mediapart.fr/jean-clement-martin/blog/100116/q... Damn ! it looks like you're right. I fell for this fake interpretation that got spread for the last 10 years on the net, and even reached wikipedia... Sorry about that. edit : it's even worst than that, that alternate theory reached the ministry of education and the parlement, since 2006... https://blogs.mediapart.fr/rouget-de-marseille/blog/130718/la-fake-news-du-sang-impur-t-elle-ete-preparee-par-une-inculture-programmee-0 https://blogs.mediapart.fr/rouget-de-marseille/blog/130718/l... Looks like we're having a lot of trouble with the original super barbaric lyrics :)))
- the_af 4y ago> Nobility was calling them impure (since not from noble blood) Did the nobility in any country use to consider the blood of the people they ruled "impure"? Lowborn, sure, but "impure"?
- btat1-2 4y agoI think it's a Germanic heritage.