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...or the 90-ish percent of votes for Henlein in the Sudeten? That would mean that at least 80% of all women voted for Henlein.

• hef19898 4y ago
  As stated in a sibling comment, the elctions you mention are, I assuke, the last communal (!) elections in the region before the Sudetenland became part of Germany in 1938. Assuming a roughly 50/50 split between men and women, and a SdP result of 90%, including 80% of the women (curious on were you got those numbers from so...) means close to 100% of men voted SdP. In elections that involved quite a lot of harassment of non SdP voters, communal elections in a region in Chekoslovakia dominated by a German minority. Well, I have to brake it to you so: women are by no means easier to come by in radical political movements than elesewhere.
  • jhgb 4y ago
    It's a lower bound estimate: Even if all "male losers" voted for the SdP, at least 80% of women would have to vote for the SdP, too, for SdP to get the results it did. So I assume you'd refer to them as "female losers", then...