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>I sometimes wonder if I were not very smart, girlfriendless and a delivery rider if it wouldnt appeal to me too. How do you explain that 45% of votes for Nazi

>I sometimes wonder if I were not very smart, girlfriendless and a delivery rider if it wouldnt appeal to me too. How do you explain that 45% of votes for Nazis came from Women? https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Women_in_Nazi_Germany#Nazi_feminine_ideal https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Women_in_Nazi_Germany#Nazi_fem...

hef19898 4y ago
You mean that 55% of pro Nazi votes, and thus a majority, were male? And that the NSDAP had, at least when the election was free, nowhere near a majority, so a vast majority of women actually voted against them? Well, I think because women just didn't like em that much.
- sealeck 4y ago
  The point that is being made is that the Nazi's electoral support base had a _lot_ of women, and the question is "how did a party which had a patriarchal ontology of society attract support from women". Your comment is missing some evidence - the Nazis did not achieve a majority in a number of elections, but to conclude that women as a category specifically disliked them (given that many men also voted against them, likely for much the same reasons as women) is not evidenced by this.
- jhgb 4y ago
  At least 80% of German women voted for Henlein and SdP in 1938 long after Hitler had been in power and known for what he was. "Women just didn't like em that much" is pure fantasy.
  - hef19898 4y ago
    Henlein's SdP, the Nazi-aligned party of the German minority in Chekoslovakia, got 90% of the vote of that minority in the last elections before the Sudetenland was absorbed by Naz-Germany in 1938. All German women never did vote for the SdP, basically becaise the SdP was a party in Chekoslovakia and not Germany. Also, by 1938, elections were no longer free and thus are a bad baseline. So, as a matter of fact, the only German women that ever voted for the SdP / Henlein were part of the German minority. And even there, women voted less for SdP than the overall German community did. That a German minority would be largely in favor joining Germany is propably not a big surprise, is it? And as said, even then women voted less for the SdP. So please stop posting unsubstantiated claims.
    - jhgb 4y ago
      The May 1938 elections were absolutely free. Where did you get that they weren't free? > And even there, women voted less for SdP than the overall German community did. 80% minimum is "less than overall German community"? > That a German minority would be largely in favor joining Germany is propably not a big surprise, is it? "Of course they voted for Nazis" is the exact opposite of "but they didn't vote for Nazis". > And as said, even then women voted less for the SdP. So please stop posting unsubstantiated claims. You yourself admit it's not unsubstantiated.
      - hef19898 4y ago
        Which elections were free? The once in Germany, which the SdP didn't participate in definitely were not. The communal ebelctions in Sudetenland of 1938? Kind of free, but people bot supporting the Nazi allied SdP were already harassed and presured to vote SdP. That under these circumstances women voted less for Nazis then men is kind of note-worthy. But since I do not expect you to argue in good faith or to provide some facts, I'll stop it here. The Anschluss and the Munich Agreement, along with the history of the Sudetenland, is too conolex a topic to discuss in such a manner.
        jhgb 4y ago
        "Kind of free?" Are you kidding me? The absolutely laughable claim above was that women were not to be blamed for the electoral victories of Nazis. The fact that at least 80% of German women in Czechoslovakia voted for Nazis in free elections demolishes that absurdity.
        hef19898 4y ago
        Ok, apparently I can't stop... Source to the claim that elections in 1938, those we are talking about were not free: https://web.archive.org/web/20111110054101/http://www.uni-duesseldorf.de/home/Jahrbuch/2004/PDF/Brandes.pdf https://web.archive.org/web/20111110054101/http://www.uni-du... And yes, a difference of 20% is quite significant. Also, German citizens enabled the Nazi, no doubt about that. The situation in Czechoslovakia in 1938 is different: - the Sudetenland was dominated by a German minority, that German candidates fare better among German voters is not a big surprise - joining Germany wasn't an unpopular policy, not in Austria nor in the Sudetenland, that a party favouring that policy does well during elections isn't a big surprise neither - those elections envolved a lot of intimidation to vote for the SdP, that means better results for the SdP Just one question, what is it with you trying to pin those Henlein election results on women?
jhgb 4y ago
...or the 90-ish percent of votes for Henlein in the Sudeten? That would mean that at least 80% of all women voted for Henlein.
- hef19898 4y ago
  As stated in a sibling comment, the elctions you mention are, I assuke, the last communal (!) elections in the region before the Sudetenland became part of Germany in 1938. Assuming a roughly 50/50 split between men and women, and a SdP result of 90%, including 80% of the women (curious on were you got those numbers from so...) means close to 100% of men voted SdP. In elections that involved quite a lot of harassment of non SdP voters, communal elections in a region in Chekoslovakia dominated by a German minority. Well, I have to brake it to you so: women are by no means easier to come by in radical political movements than elesewhere.
  - jhgb 4y ago
    It's a lower bound estimate: Even if all "male losers" voted for the SdP, at least 80% of women would have to vote for the SdP, too, for SdP to get the results it did. So I assume you'd refer to them as "female losers", then...
Barrin92 4y ago
extensive family policies and benefits during a time of extreme economic insecurity in Germany, rather than ideological or martial aspects of Nazism. Same reason the more conservative, less capitalist, more social and Christian wing of the Conservatives in Germany today (the CSU) is more popular with women than her larger sister party, the CDU.

hef19898 4y ago

You mean that 55% of pro Nazi votes, and thus a majority, were male? And that the NSDAP had, at least when the election was free, nowhere near a majority, so a vast majority of women actually voted against them? Well, I think because women just didn't like em that much.

sealeck 4y ago
The point that is being made is that the Nazi's electoral support base had a _lot_ of women, and the question is "how did a party which had a patriarchal ontology of society attract support from women". Your comment is missing some evidence - the Nazis did not achieve a majority in a number of elections, but to conclude that women as a category specifically disliked them (given that many men also voted against them, likely for much the same reasons as women) is not evidenced by this.
jhgb 4y ago
At least 80% of German women voted for Henlein and SdP in 1938 long after Hitler had been in power and known for what he was. "Women just didn't like em that much" is pure fantasy.
- hef19898 4y ago
  Henlein's SdP, the Nazi-aligned party of the German minority in Chekoslovakia, got 90% of the vote of that minority in the last elections before the Sudetenland was absorbed by Naz-Germany in 1938. All German women never did vote for the SdP, basically becaise the SdP was a party in Chekoslovakia and not Germany. Also, by 1938, elections were no longer free and thus are a bad baseline. So, as a matter of fact, the only German women that ever voted for the SdP / Henlein were part of the German minority. And even there, women voted less for SdP than the overall German community did. That a German minority would be largely in favor joining Germany is propably not a big surprise, is it? And as said, even then women voted less for the SdP. So please stop posting unsubstantiated claims.
  - jhgb 4y ago
    The May 1938 elections were absolutely free. Where did you get that they weren't free? > And even there, women voted less for SdP than the overall German community did. 80% minimum is "less than overall German community"? > That a German minority would be largely in favor joining Germany is propably not a big surprise, is it? "Of course they voted for Nazis" is the exact opposite of "but they didn't vote for Nazis". > And as said, even then women voted less for the SdP. So please stop posting unsubstantiated claims. You yourself admit it's not unsubstantiated.
    - hef19898 4y ago
      Which elections were free? The once in Germany, which the SdP didn't participate in definitely were not. The communal ebelctions in Sudetenland of 1938? Kind of free, but people bot supporting the Nazi allied SdP were already harassed and presured to vote SdP. That under these circumstances women voted less for Nazis then men is kind of note-worthy. But since I do not expect you to argue in good faith or to provide some facts, I'll stop it here. The Anschluss and the Munich Agreement, along with the history of the Sudetenland, is too conolex a topic to discuss in such a manner.
      - jhgb 4y ago
        "Kind of free?" Are you kidding me? The absolutely laughable claim above was that women were not to be blamed for the electoral victories of Nazis. The fact that at least 80% of German women in Czechoslovakia voted for Nazis in free elections demolishes that absurdity.
        hef19898 4y ago
        Ok, apparently I can't stop... Source to the claim that elections in 1938, those we are talking about were not free: https://web.archive.org/web/20111110054101/http://www.uni-duesseldorf.de/home/Jahrbuch/2004/PDF/Brandes.pdf https://web.archive.org/web/20111110054101/http://www.uni-du... And yes, a difference of 20% is quite significant. Also, German citizens enabled the Nazi, no doubt about that. The situation in Czechoslovakia in 1938 is different: - the Sudetenland was dominated by a German minority, that German candidates fare better among German voters is not a big surprise - joining Germany wasn't an unpopular policy, not in Austria nor in the Sudetenland, that a party favouring that policy does well during elections isn't a big surprise neither - those elections envolved a lot of intimidation to vote for the SdP, that means better results for the SdP Just one question, what is it with you trying to pin those Henlein election results on women?

jhgb 4y ago

...or the 90-ish percent of votes for Henlein in the Sudeten? That would mean that at least 80% of all women voted for Henlein.

hef19898 4y ago
As stated in a sibling comment, the elctions you mention are, I assuke, the last communal (!) elections in the region before the Sudetenland became part of Germany in 1938. Assuming a roughly 50/50 split between men and women, and a SdP result of 90%, including 80% of the women (curious on were you got those numbers from so...) means close to 100% of men voted SdP. In elections that involved quite a lot of harassment of non SdP voters, communal elections in a region in Chekoslovakia dominated by a German minority. Well, I have to brake it to you so: women are by no means easier to come by in radical political movements than elesewhere.
- jhgb 4y ago
  It's a lower bound estimate: Even if all "male losers" voted for the SdP, at least 80% of women would have to vote for the SdP, too, for SdP to get the results it did. So I assume you'd refer to them as "female losers", then...

Barrin92 4y ago

extensive family policies and benefits during a time of extreme economic insecurity in Germany, rather than ideological or martial aspects of Nazism. Same reason the more conservative, less capitalist, more social and Christian wing of the Conservatives in Germany today (the CSU) is more popular with women than her larger sister party, the CDU.