4 ms·
If I have entangled particles A and B, and then B interacts with and becomes entangled with particle C, can that interaction not qualify as an "observation" tha
by bluepnume 4y ago
If I have entangled particles A and B, and then B interacts with and becomes entangled with particle C, can that interaction not qualify as an "observation" that collapses the wave function of A + B and de-entangles them?
- dataflow 4y agoNot as I understand it. I think of it as: A and B were correlated, and now you caused B and C to become correlated. That cannot possibly imply that A and C's correlation dropped to zero. Or if you prefer to think of balls; if A hits B, and then B hits C, then C's future trajectory is still (forever) affected by what A was doing, as is the trajectory of anything else it hits.
- Jensson 4y agoThat is classical systems and "classical" probability. In quantum systems particle functions collapses all the time making parts of it go to zero. At least as we understand quantum mechanics today, the math we have doesn't explain experimental results without those collapses.
- dataflow 4y agoYes of course I know that's classical, I was just making an analogy to get the point across about correlations.