4 ms·
Why is it derogatory? And what is the non-derogatory alternative to that word in Arabic?
by jhgb 4y ago
Why is it derogatory? And what is the non-derogatory alternative to that word in Arabic?
- deleted 4y ago[deleted]
- nindalf 4y agoI choose not to answer you because you're either a troll or ignorant. Hopefully it's just the latter, in which case feel free to use google to educate yourself.
- jhgb 4y agoNot many people in the US or the EU speak Arabic. If I'm ignorant of it and you're a speaker of Arabic, then why don't you just enlighten me? Since when is removing one's ignorance not the point of asking questions?
- jonathanlydall 4y agoIn South Africa it’s equivalent to using N word.
- jhgb 4y agoI'm quite obviously asking about Arabic as it is being used in the Middle East. I've even spelled it out, and so did the comment I was responding to. The irrelevant South African fringe usage was also already mentioned in the comment I was responding to (hence your repetition of it bringing zero new information) but of no interest to me (unless you believe that Arabic is a widespread language in South Africa), hence me not referring to it.
- nindalf 4y agoIf you weren’t allergic to Google you would have learned that the South African word was picked up from Arabic. So yeah, it is relevant. Maybe people don’t spoon feed you explanations because you’re rude even to the people who try to explain.
- jhgb 4y agoNo, the fringe usage half a globe away still doesn't make it relevant if I'm asking how some things are called in a Middle-Eastern language. Likewise, the Czech word "Polák" for a citizen of Poland with no alternative to it in that language does not become suddenly offensive or inappropriate just because the cognate "Polack" happens to be offensive in the US. And as one can clearly see, I'm not even being rude to people with inconsequential segues.