4 ms·
This is not the case everywhere; in some jurisdictions, the marital home, even when previously owned free and clear by one of the couple, becomes subject to bei
by ThePowerOfFuet 4y ago
This is not the case everywhere; in some jurisdictions, the marital home, even when previously owned free and clear by one of the couple, becomes subject to being split 50:50 at divorce simply because it was the marital home.