6 ms·
And if I were a man, there's no way I would just let a house become marital property if I owned it outright before the marriage, especially considering how fami
by antisthenes 4y ago
And if I were a man, there's no way I would just let a house become marital property if I owned it outright before the marriage, especially considering how family courts screw men over.
That's a surefire way to homelessness, unless you are very (SV engineer or doctor) rich.
- antiverse 4y agoWhy is this comment downvoted? It's literally what goes through the minds of parents of newly weds and weds-to-be. Let's not beat around the bush and be upfront about it.
- helen___keller 4y agoOff topic. GP and the response from female POV are regarding living in the elders’ house, not the husbands house.
- antiverse 4y agoThat distinction is not worth burying the comment. It was an earnest response, and a valid one at that.
- antisthenes 4y agoI don't see it being buried (author), it seems to stand at neutral karma. But usually such opinions are fairly controversial, which suggests a clash of deeper underlying values.
- deleted 4y ago[deleted]
- lotsofpulp 4y agoThat is an issue for each couple to work through themselves, but I was more alluding to inhabiting a home belonging to your partner’s parents, not to your partner.
- watwut 4y agoThe property acquired before marriage is yours after divorce. The split part are properties acquired during marriage, unless you have prenup that says otherwise for some reason. That has zero to do with whether it is safe to move into in-laws house when you are entering vulnerable period of pregnancy and being primary caregiver for small kids. Because both severely limit your economic options even in best conditions.
- phpisthebest 4y ago>The property acquired before marriage is yours after divorce That is generally only true until kids are in the picture, then the famous "what is best for the child" over rules all
- hef19898 4y agoExamples please where property was split because of that. Child support obviously takes real estate property into account, but the actual ownership? Not sure where this happens, but than I'm no family law expert and there are so many different countries that it actually just might happen.
- phpisthebest 4y agoJust about everyday in the USA. Family courts take stability of the child over all else, so if the child is used to living in the family home who ever the custodial parent is will get possession of the home even if that custodial parent was not the owner of the home before the marriage
- watwut 4y agoThis is literally not true and specifically not true when that house was acquired by one partner before marriage.
- ThePowerOfFuet 4y agoThis is not the case everywhere; in some jurisdictions, the marital home, even when previously owned free and clear by one of the couple, becomes subject to being split 50:50 at divorce simply because it was the marital home.