> Hell, even a dead body is not forced to give up a kidney if its previous inhabitant did not sign an organ donor consent form. It may be worth discussing why

> Hell, even a dead body is not forced to give up a kidney if its previous inhabitant did not sign an organ donor consent form. It may be worth discussing why this is the case. It is certainly possible to convince of a hypothetical society where the bodies of the dead are the property of someone, be they: family, inheritors by testament, society at large, the government, etc. Why is it that a dead body is effectively it's own owner, at least when it comes to organ donation?