4 ms·
No, its very clear that the right to gun ownership is an individual right: https://constitution.findlaw.com/amendment2.html https://constitution.findlaw.com/ame
by hackinthebochs 4y ago
No, its very clear that the right to gun ownership is an individual right: https://constitution.findlaw.com/amendment2.html https://constitution.findlaw.com/amendment2.html
>The Second Amendment is naturally divided into two parts: its prefatory clause (A well regulated Militia, being necessary to the security of a free State) and its operative clause (the right of the people to keep and bear Arms shall not be infringed).
- light_hue_1 4y agoYou are picking and choosing an out of context citation and twisting what the 2nd amendment means. "Many historians agree that the primary reason for passing the Second Amendment was to prevent the need for the United States to have a professional standing army. At the time it was passed, it seems it was not intended to grant a right for private individuals to keep weapons for self-defense." So no. Your quote is not what the 2nd amendment means at all! It is a modern twist reinterpreting it.
- hackinthebochs 4y agoThe key question as it pertains to the law isn't the intent, but the meaning of the words (informed by context, intent, etc). It is the meaning of the words written that form the law, and the meaning of the words is clear. The operative clause clearly is not limited to the context of a standing army.