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If GP is in fact referring to the sotah, then it would contradict their argument even more because it is explicitly the husband having power over the woman's bo
by liminal 4y ago
If GP is in fact referring to the sotah, then it would contradict their argument even more because it is explicitly the husband having power over the woman's body without needing her consent or even any justifying evidence.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ordeal_of_the_bitter_water https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ordeal_of_the_bitter_water
- enragedcacti 4y ago> then it would contradict their argument to be clear, its pretty irrelevant to the argument because the bible is just one such example of the history of abortion. There are hundreds more and if it would help you can pretend I mentioned one of those instead.