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If the numbers 54 and 36 is correct, then one could be inclined to a simplified calculation and say that 1.5% of popular vote (54/36) equals 1.0% of seats. In t
by mjochim 4y ago
If the numbers 54 and 36 is correct, then one could be inclined to a simplified calculation and say that 1.5% of popular vote (54/36) equals 1.0% of seats. In that case, 75% of popular vote would equal 50% of seats. Or in other words: 3-1.
(and 50% of seats are not even a majority)
Another model would require 15% more to go from 36% to 51% of seats. In this case, 69% of popular vote (54+15) would be required for a majority of seats, or in other words: 2-1. Which effectively is just as egregious as 3-1.
- seanp2k2 4y agoBetween gerrymandering and electoral college it’s pretty bad, see https://fivethirtyeight.com/features/the-new-national-congressional-map-is-biased-toward-republicans/ https://fivethirtyeight.com/features/the-new-national-congre... recently